Jyotirmaya Dey

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Hi ,

I want to debug a BDC program . In the debug I want to change the MODE value to 'A '. Currently it is hard coded . Statement in the code looks like this

CALL TRANSACTION 'VL01N' USING bdcdata

MODE 'N'

UPDATE 'S'

MESSAGES INTO messtab.

I dont have the option to modify or copy the code.

Please let me know is theer a way to do it ? Thank you very much in advance.

Thanks & regards

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There was confusion between b and v in Latin.

There is evidence that b/b/ and v/w/ were confused as early as the first century and this is because they were written by the less literate.

Thus, if we find Berus written where we expected Verus, and the opposite, Vivia where we expected Vibia, that is telling us that people pronounced the two sounds the same and that is why the trouble when writing for less educated people: it was a mere matter of memory orthographic to know if something is written with b or with v, the same as for the current yeists to know if something is written with ‹y› or ‹ll›, and for the seseantes, with ‹s› or ‹z/c›, and for all , if with ‹j› or ‹g› or with or without ‹h›.

The original distribution in Latin was as follows:

The two sounds began to come together in a similar way, but without completely closing the lips. We talk about betacism.

It is a good idea to watch the video to learn the difference between the sounds.

This is what happened during the 1st century.

This sound continued its evolution and reached its final position in Romance languages.

The evolution of the original should not be a surprise. It is a common change that happened in other languages.

What happened between Latin and Romance languages was:

In most Romance languages, the phoneme was written b and the other was written v, both well established and differentiated.

The two verbs, bibre and vivre, would be pronounced the same with the confusion of b and v.

The joke is that Hispanics have merged the pronunciation into a single sound. In principle, bibere would be , not in the first case and long in the second case.

It is important to point out that the quote is spurious, anachronistic, and possibly from an Italian from the 15th–16th century. The phrase would not have been applied to Hispanics if all of Romania had pronounced it the same way.

It is a witty phrase and applicable to the Spaniards of the time, who pronounced b and v the same, while the Italians distinguished the pronunciation of both graphemes.

As the phrase would not make sense in Spanish (drinking is far from living in many ways), supposedly Escaliger, to be funny, constructed it in Latin, where, as we have already said, bibĕre ≈ vivĕre .

Regarding the phrase and its attribution to Gayo Julio César or, for that matter, any Latin author, in the PHI there is no coincidence when looking for beati Hispani; Yes, there is some coincidence when searching for bibere in the vicinity of vivere, but naturally they do not make any remote reference to the essence of the phrase. On the other hand, it would not make sense that Julius Caesar, who lived in the first century B.C. C., would have made a comment like that, if, as we have said, betacism would not occur until the first century AD. c.; even accepting that there was Betacism in the first century BC.

This would have been common to all of Romania.

Spanish maintained the phoneme, derived from intervocalic b and all v, without changing it for much of the Middle Ages.

Perhaps it has something to do —or perhaps not— with the fact that the deaf brother of the voiced did not exist, the sound labiodental as we pronounce it today —but it was , as if we were blowing out a candle, which yes which was the voiceless brother of the voiced —, so it would not seem logical to create a new sound that did not have its partner. The creation of /v/ in other Romance languages was expected. The explanation is plausible, but not necessarily true.

We are saying that in medieval Castilian b and v were pronounced differently, and thus a word like cabe and another like cave had different pronunciation —respectively, and —, while currently the pronunciation of “cabe” and "cave" is exactly the same: .

The inventory for medieval Castilian was as follows:

We have to take into account this other origin.

The medieval distribution of b and v was summarized in this way.

The Pan-Hispanic Dictionary of Doubts explicitly states that the RAE says that.

Less current authors —such as Lapesa— seem to indicate that /b/ and /v/ were two different phonemes until the 15th century, when the neutralization in only /b/ (from the speeches of the north of the peninsula) already spread to the entire peninsula, since in the south of Spain the distinction between /b/ and /v/ would still have been maintained, to a greater or lesser extent.

For their part, more current authors such asPenny or Ariza are more likely to imply by omission or to say explicitly that the Spanish version of the book did not exist.

We can see a fairly stable and coherent distinction of b and v in most of the Middle Ages, but we have just seen it differently.

However, already at the end of the period —the bibliography gives the fifteenth century for sure, with suspicions even from the fourteenth— there are enough signs that the spellings b and v represented the same phoneme, /b/, and that the phoneme /β/ was already had lost when confluent with /b/.

How do you know if there are no recordings? The rhyme of the poems is used.

At the end of the Middle Ages, this type of rhyme was found.

The following example is of the Sevillian Snchez de Badajoz.

The current situation is that b and v are both pronounced the same.

By the Golden Age, the two phonemes were already neutralized, as even the educated poets imply, which is why they rhyme with cabo, arriba, and viva.

The spellings b and v were the same as they had been during the Middle Ages when they represented two different phonemes.

A good example of all this can be found in the past tense of the indicative, where the etymological b always went between vowels.

In the Golden Age, they stopped pronouncing differently, but they continued to use the medieval spelling even in cases where the current spelling is different.

Despite the fact that there are clear rules for when to write one or the other letter, we continue to pronounce b and v the same. The appearance of the RAE in the 18th century is what we drag from it. They decided to tackle the problem of the arbitrary and indiscriminate use of ‹b› and ‹v›, sometimes even in the same word: it did not make sense that “amaba” and “amava” could be spelled interchangeably, even though both writers pronounced it the same form.

Thus, the criterion to establish what was written with ‹b› and what was written with ‹v› was none other than the etymological one: what in Latin was written with ‹b› had to be written in Spanish with ‹b› (p eg amabat > «loved»), and what was written with ‹v› in Latin, in the same way in Spanish (eg ave > «ave»).

Words of unknown origin.

The answer to the question... This would have been the perfect time to rid ourselves of this evil place, but the academic itch prevailed.

It was considered the correct form, since it was used with antietymological b and v.

Here comes the historical part and historical grammar. We can't finish without raising a couple of frequently asked questions.

As if they were written in a book.

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Using cPickle on the dictionary would be my choice. Dictionaries are a natural fit for these kind of data, so given your requirements I see no reason not to use them. That, unless you are thinking about reading them from non-python applications, in which case you'd have to use a language neutral text format. And even here you could get away with the pickle plus an export tool.

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